EMT Patient Assessment Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What does the Golden Hour refer to?
• Inadequate blood flow to the skin results in findings such as pale, cool skin; this may be associated with hypoperfusion to the brain, lungs, heart, and kidneys. Which option lists the organ groups affected?
• Which categories are included in hazards to be aware of during scene safety?
• Which term would describe a patient’s pulse rate of 140 beats per minute?
• Which action is appropriate after determining the number of patients?
• Hypertension is described as blood pressure that is:
• If patient is stable, reassess vital signs every ___ minutes.
• The sniffing position is most commonly observed in which group?
• Inhalation and exhalation occur in which ratio?
• Hypotension describes blood pressure that is:
• Labored breathing is best described as which of the following?
• What is the ultimate result of respiratory failure if it is not corrected?
• Perform ______ for patients who are not breathing or whose breathing is too slow or too shallow.
• At the scene of a motor vehicle collision, after performing any immediate lifesaving treatment you should:
• What is the maximum recommended duration for the rapid exam after the primary assessment?
• Pulse of normal strength is described as which term?
• Which statement best describes the neurovascular assessment phrase: 'Compare distal and proximal sensory and motor responses and one side with the other'?
• The rapid exam of a patient following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
• What is blood pressure?
• Which item is included among the seven vital signs?
• During history gathering, you should determine if information provided by the patient and others is inconsistent.
• Which fingers are recommended to palpate a peripheral pulse?
• ___ is a late sign of shock and indicates that the patient is in the critical stage of decompensated shock
• What is the primary purpose of standard precautions?
• Ronchi are best described as which of the following?
• What three components are assessed in the primary assessment to identify life threats?
• Pediatric resting pulse is typically faster than adults.
• In trauma assessment, what is an example of a distracting injury?
• Palpate the ____ pulse for children younger than 1 year old
• In the AVPU scale, which category indicates responsiveness to verbal stimuli?
• During scene size-up, what precaution is recommended?
• The sign described as bruising behind the ear is known as which sign?
• Which statement best describes blunt trauma?
• At what point should you consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene?
• Avoid taking a blood pressure on an arm if the patient has:
• Which memory component asks the patient for the current year, month, and approximate date?
• Which items are included in the seven vital signs?
• In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas such as the:
• Pertinent negatives are used to identify problems and guide treatment.
• The crackling sensation under the skin is most consistent with which condition?
• In which phase do you determine MOI/NOI?
• An early indicator of low blood glucose, shock, or hypoxia is:
• Which statement best identifies a factor least likely to alter a patient’s level of consciousness?
• Which of the following indicates airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
• A palpable pulse is created by which physiologic mechanism?
• Which two elements are essential to assess during the primary assessment?
• Under scene size-up, when should c-spine stabilization be considered?
• Which statement about the Glasgow Coma Scale is true?
• Which finding indicates low oxygen in the blood and is described as bluish coloration?
• Platinum 10 minutes = ___ minutes
• Which sign indicates inadequate breathing due to increased work of breathing?
• Which acronym is used for asking questions about pain?
• In a responsive patient, which pulse site is typically palpated for rapid circulation assessment?
• When a bright light shines in one pupil, what should happen in the opposite pupil?
• In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the:
• For an adult, the normal resting pulse rate should be between ___ and ___.
• Which condition would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
• Which description correctly identifies accessory muscles of respiration?
• If respirations exceed 28 breaths/min or are fewer than 8 breaths/min or are too shallow to provide adequate air exchange, consider providing _________.
• A normal resting pulse should be between 60 and 100 beats per minute.
• Which of the following is a normal pupil finding?
• Pertinent negatives are negative findings that warrant no care or intervention.
• Capillary refill assessment primarily helps evaluate which body system?
• The Glasgow Coma Scale uses parameters that test a patient's:
• Wheezing is defined as which of the following?
• Which action is routinely performed first in the initial on-scene assessment?
• Which scenario warrants immediate transport?
• Tachycardia is defined as a pulse rate greater than 100 beats/min.
• During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
• Which memory component asks the patient to describe what happened, including mechanism of injury or nature of illness?
• Which of the following is NOT a high-priority indicator?
• In which element stands for Medications?
• Auscultation in blood pressure measurement involves listening for which sounds?
• An airway adjunct is used to maintain an open airway during ventilation.
• Which scenario does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
• Which device measures ventilation, circulation, and metabolism?
• If a patient has a pulse but is not breathing, you should
• How is a traumatic injury defined?
• When performing a reassessment, you should first:
• What is the primary goal of a focused assessment?
• Crackles (rales) indicate which condition?
• Palpate the ____ pulse in responsive patients, and palpate the ____ pulse in unresponsive patients
• During a rapid scan, how long should the assessment take?
• An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
• Which item in SAMPLE corresponds to medication history?
• When gathering medical history information for an unconscious patient with no witnesses, the EMT should:
• Jaundice indicates yellow skin or sclera caused by what underlying condition?
• Battle's sign is a clinical finding observed in which scenario?
• Which of the following is a bluish discoloration of the skin due to low oxygen levels?
• Jugular venous distention in a patient who is sitting up suggests a problem with ___
• Which statement defines a pertinent negative in patient assessment?
• When direct pressure is not successful, or there is obvious arterial hemorrhage of an extremity, _____
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a hazard you may encounter when ensuring scene safety?
• Which symptom is most indicative of a severe allergic reaction?
• In the inhalation to exhalation ratio of 1:3, which phase is longer?
• Two-to-three-word dyspnea describes a severe breathing problem in which the patient can speak only how many words at a time?
• A rapid full-body scan is indicated for which patient?
• A patient with insufficient air exchange and low levels of oxygen in the blood has what?
• Which statement best describes subcutaneous emphysema?
• What does coagulate mean?
• Which MOI statement is correct?
• Provocation in OPQRST refers to what?
• Normal adult systolic range for blood pressure is:
• In adults, injuries to bones and muscles of the extremities may cause local circulatory compromise, resulting in hypoperfusion of which area?
• Auscultation is defined as which of the following?
• When assessing breathing, which elements must be obtained?
• Which element stands for Pertinent past medical history?
• During a patient interview, how can you best demonstrate that you understand the situation?
• Respiratory distress occurs when a patient has difficulty breathing, characterized by what?
• Which statement best describes jaundice as noted in the skin and sclera?
• Which is the first step in the primary assessment?
• In which position is jugular venous distention most clinically significant?
• What can cause the skin to be abnormally flushed and red?
• Which of the following patients does NOT have signs of an altered mental status?
• In an unresponsive patient, from whom can you obtain information?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a cause of depressed brain function?
• Which sputum color is commonly associated with a respiratory infection?
• What is the correct guidance about the secondary assessment?
• What is the most effective method for assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
• Penetrating trauma is characterized by:
• Which assessment phase involves a rapid head-to-toe scan after life threats are managed?
• Blood pressure is measured in ___
• Which option is an example of a high-priority patient who should be transported immediately?
• In a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions, which assessment would the EMT most likely not perform?
• Which statement about the chief complaint is correct?
• After applying direct pressure to a bleeding wound, the next step is
• Which action represents the correct moment to implement standard precautions in an EMS call?
• Use a thigh cuff with patients who:
• EMS transport and initial hospital stabilization = ___ minutes
• Which sign suggests possible brain function impairment in a head-injured patient?
• Which trio best represents the components used to evaluate circulation during the primary assessment?
• Which method should be used to assess breathing in an unconscious patient?
• If you observe an object that might be used to commit violence, what should you do?
• Which option best distinguishes a symptom from a sign?
• When using a pulse oximeter, which condition can cause an inaccurate reading?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a general condition that can cause sudden death?
• What does perfusion refer to?
• What is the first action to control external bleeding?
• In orientation assessment, what does Event evaluate?
• The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:
• Which statement about pediatric blood pressure measurement is correct?
• Each complete breath includes which two phases?
• Subcutaneous emphysema is defined as:
• Which statement about perfusion signs is true?
• The goal of the primary assessment is to:
• Which statement best describes the overall purpose of the initial assessment in the field?
• Diastolic pressure
• The goal for oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of approximately ____ to ____.
• Which item is NOT a component of the OPQRST assessment?
• Which action is the initial response to life-threatening external bleeding from the groin?
• Which arterial site is commonly palpated to assess circulation in a responsive patient?
• After administering oxygen to a patient with altered mental status, what is the most appropriate next step?
• The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the:
• Which statement about MOI and injury severity is accurate?
• For a conscious patient with a bright red spurting groin bleed, which action is indicated first?
• Altered level of consciousness can be caused by which of the following?
• In deeply pigmented skin, color changes are most reliably detected on which area?
• Which position is described as leaning forward on outstretched arms to improve airflow?
• Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate that is less than 60 beats/min.
• When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
• Which finding most strongly suggests fluid in the lungs?
• ___ is the most common means of measuring a patient's blood pressure
• Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
• Which statement best describes shallow expirations?
• PEARRL aids in assessing pupils by determining color, size, and response to light to gauge brain status.
• Pulse that is weak and difficult to feel is described as which term?
• Which statement is true about wheezes and crackles?
• Tidal volume is a measure of the amount of air moved into or out of the lungs in one minute.
• Which skin description best indicates hypoperfusion?
• A resting adult with a pulse of 110 bpm would be categorized as tachycardia.
• DCAP-BTLS stands for what?
• PEARRL is a guide in assessing pupils; what does PEARRL emphasize?
• Which technique helps show you understand the patient's situation?
• Which pupil finding is a concerning sign requiring urgent evaluation?
• Which of the following scenarios indicates potential for violence during ensuring scene safety?
• Coughing up blood or pink-tinged frothy sputum can be caused by which condition?
• For a patient 3 years old or younger, which statement about blood pressure measurement is true?
• Accessory muscles are
• Altered mental status is defined as any deviation from which standard?
• Discovery of incident and activation of EMS = ___ mins
• What does A + O x 4 stand for in patient orientation?
• Critical thinking in EMS includes which activity?
• Normal systolic range for infants at 1 year is:
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the secondary assessment?
• During the primary assessment, which of the following best describes the components used to evaluate circulation?
• Shallow expirations are identified by
• A decrease in blood pressure may indicate:
• A neurologic assessment should be performed any time you encounter a patient who has:
• Battle's sign is bruising located behind the ear. This finding would most likely be observed following which type of injury?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five parts of the patient assessment process?
• A resting adult with a pulse of 55 bpm would be categorized as bradycardia.
• Which is listed as a challenge in obtaining patient history?
• What is triage?
• Which of the following is listed as a vital sign in the seven vital signs?
• Which of the following are used to assess breathing in a patient?
• The diameter and reactivity to light of the pupils can reflect the brain's status of:
• Why is palpating the carotid pulse in infants discouraged?
• Which scale is commonly used to assess a patient's level of consciousness in the field?
• At what point in the patient assessment process do you investigate the chief complaint?
• If a patient has an altered LOC, what is required?
• Counting respirations is most easily done by counting each peak chest rise.
• When auscultating blood pressure in the upper limb, the diaphragm of the stethoscope should be placed over which artery?
• If there is a potential for trauma, which airway-opening maneuver should be used?
• NOT a step in reassessment?
• Diastolic pressure reflects the minimum arterial pressure during which phase?
• An EMS patient has a GCS total of 9 with eye opening 2, verbal response 3, and motor response 4. Which description matches this score?
• Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear as which description?
• Which combination of eye opening and motor response in the described GCS scenario corresponds to a total of 9 points?
• A thick, yellow or green sputum most likely indicates which condition?
• Which two postures indicate the patient is trying to increase air flow?
• Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
• In an unresponsive adult involved in a motorcycle crash, where should you palpate for a pulse?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of neurovascular status assessment?
• Spontaneous respirations are defined as
• Systolic pressure
• In a residence where a handgun is visible, which action is appropriate for EMS personnel?
• Under what condition is suction indicated in an unconscious patient with airway secretions?
• Which breath sound is most consistent with fluid in the lungs?
• What describes the Incident Command System in emergency response?
• In the early stages of shock, the skin will become which?
• Which test can provide an indication of a patient's perfusion status?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a challenge in obtaining patient history?
• In a 6-year-old with a brassy crowing sound on inhalation, what is this sound called?
• What is the normal body temperature in Fahrenheit and Celsius?
• One of the most common causes of confusion in patients is which condition?
• High blood pressure can be caused by:
• Which element stands for Last oral intake?
• Which element stands for Events leading up to injury or illness?
• Which device is commonly used to measure a patient’s oxygen saturation non-invasively?
• Which of the following may create airway obstruction?
• Which scales are used to determine level of consciousness during the primary assessment?
• Which term describes rapid breathing?
• Wheezing may indicate obstruction or narrowing of which part of the airway?
• Which medication class is most likely to slow a patient’s pulse rate?
• Nasal flaring can indicate airway problems; which option correctly identifies its association?
• For which patient is spinal immobilization clearly indicated?
• What is the safest initial action if a weapon is present during an EMS assessment in a residence?
• SAMPLE is used to find information on:
• If the pulse is difficult to feel or is irregular, the patient may have problems with his
• In infants, capillary refill time should return to normal color within how many seconds?
• Capnography primarily measures what?
• Capillary refill is used to assess which of the following?
• In EMS terminology, what is the chief complaint?
• During the primary assessment, if you identify life threats, your next step is to treat them and then continue with the assessment.
• In the early stage of shock, the skin typically appears as which of the following?
• A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will produce which reading pattern?
• What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
• With regard to the assessment of a patient’s cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in:
• ___ is associated with a fracture of several ribs (flail), causing a section of the chest to move independently from the rest of the chest wall
• Which statement best defines respiratory failure?
• Which statement best describes why pulse oximeter readings may be inaccurate?
• The following statement is true about the relationship between systolic and mean arterial pressure?
• Inhalation and exhalation times occur in a 1:3 ratio; the active inhalation phase lasts one-third the amount of time of exhalation.
• In an adult patient, a pulse rate greater than 100 beats/min is described as:
• To determine whether a pulse is present, you should
• During a primary assessment of an unconscious pedestrian with ineffective breathing and bloody secretions in the mouth, what is the most immediate action?
• Crepitus is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which statement about sexual history is included in the material?
• Which statement describes a state assessed by the AVPU scale?
• Capillary refill can be affected by which factor in adults?
• Which statement about thigh cuffs is supported here?
• Which pupillary change would indicate depressed brain function?
• DCAP-BTLS items include all of the following EXCEPT
• The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from:
• A rapid full-body scan is indicated for which patient type?
• In cases of physical abuse, which approach is recommended?
• Why shouldn't you allow your thumb to touch the patient when palpating his pulse?
• Retractions refer to which observation during inspiration?
• During history taking, which items should be documented?
• Pulse stronger than normal is described as which term?
• Which two signs in pediatric patients indicate inadequate breathing?
• Which of the following is commonly considered a mechanism of injury (MOI) example?
• Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
• Hearing bubbling or gurgling in the upper airway indicates which of the following?
• Capillary refill time primarily assesses what?
• Respiratory failure occurs when which of the following conditions are met?
• During history taking, what should you do to establish rapport?
• In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the:
• During assessment of a 6-month-old with vomiting and diarrhea, a capillary refill time of approximately 4 seconds indicates:
• During the primary assessment, which statement best describes its main focus?
• Jugular venous distention is most evident when the patient is in which position?
• For patients who are unconscious, the initial assessment should focus on which problem areas?
• ___ is often associated with rib fractures
• What designates immediate transport priority in EMS decision making?
• Which statement best defines two-to-three-word dyspnea?
• Which medication class is associated with slowing heart rate?
• What oxygen administration is specified during the primary assessment steps?
• ___ indicate the patient has some condition that is impairing the flow of air into and out of the lungs
• Normal body temperature is:
• A patient fell off a ladder; he is conscious, alert, with pain to the right side and shortness of breath. This is known as ________.
• History taking provides details about the patient's chief complaint and an account of the patient's signs and symptoms.
• Paradoxical motion occurs in which condition?
• Perfusion is assessed by evaluating a patient's:
• If capillary refill time in an infant lasts longer than 2 seconds, what does this most likely indicate?
• When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is:
• Retractions are
• Scene size-up action NOT performed.
• What is the recommended sequence immediately after delivering lifesaving interventions in a trauma patient?
• Which observation is not typically part of forming a general impression?
• Hypoperfusion is often caused by _____
• If a patient has a mastectomy on one side, or an arm with an IV, you should
• _____ does not work in EMS because EMS work occurs in a dynamically changing and chaotic environment
• In the absence of patient history, which item can provide critical medical information?
• With poor perfusion, the body pulls blood away from the surface and the skin becomes:
• OPQRST helps quantify symptoms such as dizziness, nausea, and shortness of breath.
• Younger the patients, ___ the pulse rate.
• If a patient is unstable, how often should you reassess vital signs?
• Bounding is stronger than normal.
• What is the main purpose of a focused assessment?
• Which statement about memory orientation is true?
• Stridor is defined as which of the following?
• Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
• A semiconscious patient who opens her eyes when spoken to and is lethargic should be rated on the AVPU scale as:
• During a primary assessment, which two components should you assess?
• A snoring sound in the upper airway most likely indicates what condition?
• What is the first step listed in the scene size-up process?
• Which statement about cuff size is true?
• While en route to a shooting, the correct action regarding safety is to:
• What is the most effective method to determine whether a patient’s problem is medical or traumatic?
• Primary assessment is used to do what?
• Battle's sign is bruising located behind which part of the head?
• Which technique provides the most accurate method to palpate a pulse?
• Whe wheezing is typically heard during which phase of respiration and does it indicate upper airway obstruction?
• Which memory component is tested when asking the patient to recall his or her name?
• Which of the following is NOT an MOI example?
• If you suspect danger upon arriving at a scene, what should you do before entering?
• If there are no life threats identified during the primary assessment, what is the next step?
• Which observation is least useful when forming a general impression?
• If a patient is unconscious, how should you open the airway according to the primary assessment steps?
• Which memory component evaluates a patient’s ability to identify the patient’s current location?
• The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
• Aim to assess, stabilize, package, and begin transport to the appropriate facility within ___ minutes after arrival on scene whenever possible (aka platinum 10).
• Form a general impression best helps you determine which of the following?
• Which of the following are signs of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
• You should suspect respiratory failure in a patient who:
• What is associated with chest pain?
• What is the purpose of the Glasgow Coma Scale numeric score?
• In the sequence for life-threatening bleeding, what is the correct order of priorities?
• Which is the primary purpose of the primary assessment?
• The skin will feel cool when the patient is in which condition?
• Treating a patient for shock before obvious signs of shock ___ your patient's potential to survive.
• Sustained unconsciousness should warn you that which of the following may exist?
• Decompensated shock occurs when the body's ability to compensate eventually decreases.
• A fixed and nonreactive pupil is most concerning for potential injury to which brain region?
• What is the first concern when entering a scene?